What does Jesus mean by “the Son of Man”?
This is a little more difficult. There is a variety of opinion on this. The first thing we must admit is that Jesus meant something different than what we think of when we hear the phrase.
This phrase is used 81 times in the Gospels. Every time is it is used by Jesus. (Twice his words are quoted by another person.) Clearly Jesus chose this title for a reason. One reason seems to be its ambiguity.
The title “Messiah” was loaded with meaning, much of it incorrect. The Jews were looking for a Messiah who would lead them against the Romans and become their new king. This is one of the reasons that Jesus was reluctant to tell people that he was the Messiah. He didn’t want to assume all the baggage that the term carried with it. He told his disciples in verse 20 “not to tell anyone that he was the Christ.”
There were two primary meanings associated with the phrase “the son of man.”
In Psalm 8:4 is used to refer to a human being in general.
In Daniel 7:13-14 it meant something very different.
Now, you may not think the connection is strong between Jesus’ use of “the Son of Man” and Daniel’s phrase “one like a son of man.” (By the way, there are no capitals in the original documents. This is a translation decision.) But the question is not what you think but what Jesus thought and what his listeners thought.
So Jesus apparently used this title because it had messianic overtones but was also ambiguous enough so that Jesus could build into it the meaning he wanted it to convey.
It’s important to note that Jesus used this title before the Sanhedrin with a clear reference to Daniel 7 (Matthew 26:63–64).
This phrase is used 81 times in the Gospels. Every time is it is used by Jesus. (Twice his words are quoted by another person.) Clearly Jesus chose this title for a reason. One reason seems to be its ambiguity.
The title “Messiah” was loaded with meaning, much of it incorrect. The Jews were looking for a Messiah who would lead them against the Romans and become their new king. This is one of the reasons that Jesus was reluctant to tell people that he was the Messiah. He didn’t want to assume all the baggage that the term carried with it. He told his disciples in verse 20 “not to tell anyone that he was the Christ.”
There were two primary meanings associated with the phrase “the son of man.”
In Psalm 8:4 is used to refer to a human being in general.
In Daniel 7:13-14 it meant something very different.
In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed.
Now, you may not think the connection is strong between Jesus’ use of “the Son of Man” and Daniel’s phrase “one like a son of man.” (By the way, there are no capitals in the original documents. This is a translation decision.) But the question is not what you think but what Jesus thought and what his listeners thought.
So Jesus apparently used this title because it had messianic overtones but was also ambiguous enough so that Jesus could build into it the meaning he wanted it to convey.
It’s important to note that Jesus used this title before the Sanhedrin with a clear reference to Daniel 7 (Matthew 26:63–64).
posted by Pastor Rod at 5:54 PM
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